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Socio-economic standing. Like it always is.


How do you explain socio-economic standing causing systemic misogyny without invoking culture?


You would probably note that misogyny is/was widespread among the poor across a whole host of cultures then point out that relative affluence -> female education -> breakdown of misogyny.

"Socio-economic standing" is basically a catchall answer that's almost certain to correlate heavily with whatever the more fundamental causes are (education, women's rights, property rights, strong middle class, etc.)




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